
Originally Posted by
AssertnFailure
Nope....terribly insufficient as proof.
Conversely, let's think of it this way:
1) Kakashi says MS takes a toll on the user.
2) Itachi is impressed by Kakashi's observation.
3) Kakashi asks how bad Itachi's eyesight has become.
4) Itachi freaks out.
Now, if we were to assume that JaySee was right, then #3 does not present anything that #1 doesn't present, right? So why would Itachi's #4 be so dramatically different from #2? It just doesn't make any sense!
However, if we consider #3 to be metaphorical in that it implies Itachi has failed to observe something important, then it does become new information, which justifies the drastically different #4 response.
In addition to this, I find that the confirmation that Kakashi does, in fact, have MS when he used it on Deidara further supports my point, because it allowed us to know with absolute certainty that #4 was a foreshadowing to Kakashi's new ability. With that said, where does the connection exist between #4 and Kakashi accusing Itachi of going blind?
Sometimes I think you guys need to take some basic courses in literary techniques.