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Sat, 04-12-2008, 05:15 AM
#1
Meanings of words do not tend to become confused over time. They change. Language is not a static thing by any stretch of the imagination.
You are both right. But..."arrogance" has shifted to a negative connotation that implies someone is boastful and proud of their own skills. Whether it is not justified and now even if it is. Arrogance is perceived.
Kei is teasing Hikari. Only Hikari. But that does not make him not arrogant to everyone else. Kei may be stating it matter of factly, and the other members of the S.A. certainly know he's not an arrogant asshole and that he's only being matter-of-fact.
But Hikari and all they jealous people in the school think he is an arrogant asshole. Is it true? No. But Kei is very public about his teasing of Hikari. So everyone outside of the S.A. sees him being an asshole to her, and presumes that that is precisely what he is.
Like many other words used as labels, "arrogance" is applied by everyone else, not the subject of the word.
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Sat, 04-12-2008, 11:13 AM
#2
Language does change, but there are cases when it gets confused. Your first statement is a very very hasty generalization, and I believe you will notice what I mean if you reread it. The common usage of "arrogant" is indeed what you have noted it to be, but that was not the way I used it in my argument, and neither it is the established meaning of the word in the academe.
Even if he is perceived as arrogant by others, that does not mean he is really arrogant. It is simply the case of mistaken expression. For example, if a girl is perceived as a whore by others because of her clothing or how she acts, that does not make her a whore, since the conditions of being a whore (as society understands it) may not be met. The whole argument was about whether Kei is actually arrogant or not, not if he is perceived to be arrogant. The standard for this, well, is the very definition I posted.
Like I said, even the word arrogant can mean different things to different people, and that is the main reason why me and animus don't seem to meet eye to eye. He is not necessarily wrong, if he is indeed basing his argument on the common usage of arrogant. But if we check the actual definition from reliable sources, then my argument would be correct. Since we probably did have a different understanding of the word, the conclusion is a moot point. I simply wanted to clarify this in my last post.
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